oDesk Marketing Methods and Technique Test Answers 2015

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* How does a Sales Promotion Campaign impact a customer’s desire to buy?
a. It appeals to their desire for a deal and increases the speed at which they buy
b. It creates the apprehension the product will cost more later
c. It does not have any impact
d. It is just another form of advertising and has no impact on buying

* How does Information from the SIVA model apply to customers?
a. Does the customer know of the company’s product and is it enough to influence a decision to buy
b. Does the price reflect the value
c. Determined how much will be spent on customer acquisition
d. Determines the product mix available to the customer

* Which of the following does Placement involve?
a. How the company is perceived in the market
b. How the product gets to the customer
c. How the marketing budget is allocated
d. How the company logo is placed on the packaging

* How does Product Focus Marketing differ from Customer Focus Marketing?
a. PFM will always cost more to perform
b. PFM does not usually result in as many sales
c. PFM relies on changing pricing to gauge demand
d. PFM looks to create a market whereas CFM responds to the existing market
 
* Which of the following options would a company heavily involved in Research & Development most likely follow?
a. Product Focus Marketing
b. Customer Focus Marketing
c. Advertising
d. Direct Sales

* What are the four new Ps?
a. Pricing, Promotion, Placement, Product
b. Product, Peer-to-Peer, Potential Clients, Pricing
c. Promotion, Personalization, Participation, Product
d. Personalization, Participation, Peer-to-Peer, Predictive Modeling

* What is meant by Product Focus Marketing?
a. Focusing on the customers and their wants
b. Focusing on selling the previous year’s products
c. Trying to develop a market for a product
d. Diversifying the product mix

* What does Predictive Modeling accomplish in the marketing mix?
a. It is subjective and allows for creativity in marketing
b. It replaces market research
c. It uses algorithms to solve marketing problems
d. It leaves marketing to the discretion of the management

* What would a company hope a potential customer would do after seeing an advertisement for a new product?
a. Perform some action related to purchasing the product
b. Remember to tell their friends
c. Sell their current solution and buy the new one
d. Do nothing

* What is meant by “branding”?
a. Creating a certain image for a product
b. Physically marking each product with the company logo
c. Determining the customers’ needs
d. Setting the price for a product

* How does Personal Selling differ from Advertising?
a. It is more progressive than advertising
b. It allows for a direct, tailored message to be given to the potential client
c. It is cheaper
d. There is no real difference

* What are some of the steps in an advertising campaign?
a. Designing, Budgeting, Determining the point of sale
b. Assembly, Painting, Distribution
c. Market research, Budgeting, Choice of the media, Designing, Testing results
d. Financing, Operations, Accounting, Marketing

* What is meant by Peer-to-Peer in the marketing sense?
a. Allowing a customer to interact with other customer via forums and communities
b. Selling directly to customers door to door
c. Creating blanket ads for the television
d. Offering coupons

* Which of the following would Pricing include beyond the price for the product?
a. How the client receives the product
b. Shipping options if purchased online
c. Discounts available to the client
d. Colors the product is available in

* How is Advertising different from Personal Sales?
a. It costs more
b. It is much more effective
c. They are pretty much the same
d. It is considered pervasive and impersonal

* What does SIVA essentially accomplish?
a. It takes the four Ps of marketing and reorients them to focus more on the customer
b. It regulates the world of marketing
c. It is a throwback to the marketing techniques of old days
d. It helps sales people sell more

* What is meant by Personal Selling?
a. Creating advertisements for the television
b. A salesman approaching potential customers
c. Creating banner ads for online sites
d. Emailing customer’s coupons

* What is another term for “Placement”?
a. Accounting
b. Publicity
c. Distribution
d. Branding

* How would Advertising be categorized?
a. Directly targeting specific crowds
b. An ineffective method of marketing
c. The same as mail marketing
d. Aiming at mass markets

* What supplementary areas of study play into marketing?
a. Accounting and Finance
b. Psychology and Sociology
c. Geography
d. Computer Science

* Which of the following does Pricing involve?
a. Determining how to get the product to the customer
b. Setting a price which will create the maximum demand for the product
c. Setting a bill of materials for the product
d. Determining the end users preferred purchase place

* How does a successful advertisement help the sales team?
a. It eliminates their jobs
b. It reduces their burden as the customers are already inclined to purchase
c. It shows the customers the sales team is effective
d. It reduces the amount of paper work they have to do

* What is accomplished by successfully using communication in marketing?
a. It helps create the company image
b. It turns strangers into customers
c. It uses the marketing budget effectively
d. It turns away customers the company does not want

* What method/s is/are used to determine customers’ needs?
a. Examining sales history
b. Speculation based on prior market research of other products
c. Looking to competitors
d. Market research

* What is meant by Customer Focus Marketing?
a. Selling only to past customers
b. Creating email campaigns for past customers
c. Focusing on customers and their relatives
d. Listening to the customers and tailoring the products and services to their demand

* What is meant by the ‘People’ aspect of Extended Marketing?
a. The actual customers
b. The people who design the product being sold
c. The manufacturing staff who physically touch the product
d. The people who come in contact with the customer, having an impact on overall satisfaction

* Which of the following are the aspects of the Extended Marketing Mix?
a. Product, Placement, Pricing, Procurement
b. People, Performance, Pricing, Process
c. Process, Pricing, Placement, Procurement
d. People, Process, Physical Evidence

* What is covered by Participation?
a. Customer surveys
b. Progressively marketing new products to untested markets
c. Allowing the customers to be actively involved in shaping a company and its image
d. Selling to new markets

* Which of the following would the scope of Product include?
a. How the product is delivered to a customer
b. The packaging of the product
c. Warranties and support services
d. The bill of materials for the product

* Which of the following would be considered the result of Product Focus Marketing?
a. Nintendo Wii video game system
b. Dell laptop
c. Campbell’s Soup
d. Candle Manufacturing

* Which of the following companies would be considered a trail blazer in Personalization?
a. Procter & Gamble
b. Ford Auto Corporation
c. Dell Computers
d. Canon Cameras

* Which of the following is involved in the Publicity aspect of Promotion?
a. Determining what product mix to offer to the customers
b. Creating advertisements for different markets
c. Managing the public perception of the product
d. Setting sales goals for each product line

* Which of the following is a demerit of Product Focus Marketing?
a. It costs too much
b. It relies on past successes
c. It is taxed at a higher rate
d. A company takes a big risk in creating products that the market may not adapt to

* What does Peer-to-Peer look to change in the traditional marketing model?
a. It gives the company the ability to charge more for their products
b. It allows for more design options in a product
c. It allows access to broader markets
d. It takes the interruptive nature of marketing away, e.g. imposing a brand on the customers

* What is another term for Peer-to-Peer?
a. Social Computing
b. Internet Marketing
c. Blanket Advertising
d. Selling

* Which of the following does ‘Access’ in the SIVA model apply to customers?
a. How the company gains access to the materials used in manufacturing
b. How the customers access the company’s website
c. How the customers can get the solution and how they take delivery
d. How the customers can order

* What is meant by SIVA?
a. The governing body over Marketing
b. Solution, Information, Value, Access
c. Sales, Information, Vehicle, Attributes
d. Sales, Information, Value, Access

* Which of the following would be part of successful advertising?
a. Attracting attention
b. Cost effectiveness
c. Using lots of colors
d. Prime Time TV placements

* What is the purpose of marketing?
a. To gain customer trust in a company
b. To create and deliver value to customers
c. To learn more about the customer and what their needs are
d. All of the above

* Which of the following is an example of Placement?
a. A new ad campaign
b. Allocating $10,000 to marketing
c. The point of sale
d. Increasing the marketing staff


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oDesk Marketing Methods And Technique Test Answers 2015.

oDesk Organizational Behavior Test Answers 2015

Project Management is the most demanding work on oDesk. If you want to do a job as a project management. You should pass the test of Organizational Behavior Test.

* Which of the following effects refers to a cognitive bias whereby the perception of a trait is influenced by the perception of former traits?
a. Halo effect
b. Contrast effect
c. Stereotyping
d. Projections

* In the Fiedler model, the degree to which job assignments are procedurized is called
a. Leader-member relations
b. Task structure
c. Position power
d. Least preferred co-workers questionnaire

* _________ is a form of organizational resistance to change which includes lack of emotion and motivation
a. Informal resistance
b. Neural resistance
c. Core resistance
d. General apathy

* To which of the following can the growing interest in workplace spirituality be attributed?
a. Workplace conflict
b. The desire to counterbalance the pressures and stress of a turbulent pace of life
c. Ill health of the employees

* Based on the findings of the Managerial Grid, managers were found to perform best under the__________.
a. 9,1 style
b. 9,9 style
c. 1,9 style
d. 1,1 style

* The ______theory determines the stability and instability of causes related to success or failure.
a. Critical
b. Decision
c. Credibility
d. Attribution

* _________ power is based upon the power holder's superior abilities
a. Coercive
b. Definitive
c. Core
d. Expert

* Which among the following is a technique of impression management?
a. Avoiding Change
b. Self Promotion
c. Avoiding Blam

* Which of the following is an informal group bound together by the active pursuit of a single issue?
a. Coalition
b. Power
c. Politics
d. Consistency

* A personality test that taps four characteristics and classifies people into 1 of the 16-personality types is called the:
a. Big Five Model
b. Four-component model
c. Myers-Briggs type indicator
d. Johan window

* State whether True or False
A strong culture is a culture in which the core values are intensely held and widely shared.
a. True
b. False

* Who proposed the concept of Managerial Grid?
a. Peter Drucker
b. Margaret Thatcher
c. John Kotter
d. Blake and Mouton

* Which theory of motivation uses the concepts of motivation and hygiene factors?
a. ERG Theory
b. Two-Factor theory
c. Goal setting theory
d. Cognitive evaluation theory

* Which theory contains the assumptions that employees dislike work, are lazy, dislike responsibility and must be coerced to perform'?
a. Theories X and Y
b. Theory Y
c. Theory X
d. Theory Z

* Which of the following is the period of learning that occurs before a new employee joins an organization?
a. Pre learning stage
b. Pre arrival stage
c. Encounter stage
d. Metamorphosis stage

* What is the term for the process whereby workers organize themselves to meet, discuss, and negotiate matters related to their work with their employers?
a. Alternative bargaining
b. Distributive bargaining
c. Collective bargaining
d. Converse bargaining

* Which of the following is an effective way of making decisions when people in an organization show resistance to change?
a. Facilitation
b. Coercion
c. Manipulation
d. Negotiation

* State whether True or False
Personality is the sum total of ways in which an individual reacts and interacts with others
a. True
b. False

* Which personality trait involves attentiveness to inner feelings, preference for variety, and intellectual curiosity?
a. Openness to experience
b. Agreeableness
c. Extraversion
d. Neuroticism

* Distinctiveness, an aspect of the Attribution theory, refers to whether an individual displays:
a. the same response in similar situations like everyone
b. the same behavior in different situations
c. different behavior in different situations

* Which of the following is a/are primary characteristic/s of organization culture?
a. Expansion
b. Diversification
c. Innovation and risk taking

* The tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate that of internal factors, when making judgments about the behavior of others is called:
a. the Attribution theory
b. Self-serving bias
c. Fundamental attribution error
d. Estimation error

* The conflict that supports the goals of a group and improves its performance is called:
a. dysfunctional conflict
b. functional conflict
c. task conflict
d. relationship conflict

* Which view regarding conflict shows that conflict is a natural and inevitable outcome in a group?
a. Individual view
b. Macro view
c. Human relations view

* During which of the following does an employee express organizationally desired emotions during interpersonal transactions?
a. Emotional labor
b. Felt emotions
c. Displayed emotions
d. Moods

* Which of the following personality characteristics is associated with an individual who is pragmatic, maintains emotional distance and believes that ends can justify means?
a. Self esteem
b. Machiavellianism
c. Self-monitoring
d. Risk taking

* With which of the following factors is stress associated?
a. Limitations and uncertainty
b. Restrictions and supply
c. Winning and losing
d. Constraints and demands

* Which term can be used for voluntary actions that violate established norms, and threaten the organization or its members or both?
a. Employee grievances
b. Employee conflict
c. Interpersonal conflict
d. Employee deviance

* State whether True or False
Unhealthy changes in eating habits, such as untimely meals or binge eating, or a sudden increase in the consumption of alcohol are behavioral symptoms of stress.
a. True
b. False

* ________ are the persons who act as catalysts and assume the responsibility for managing change activities.
a. Change agents
b. Change managers
c. Change executives
d. Change personnel

* State whether True or False
Legitimate political behavior is extreme political behavior that violates the implied rules of the game.
a. True
b. False

* Through which of the following can an individual organize and interpret his sensory impressions to give meaning to his environment?
a. Decision making
b. Perception
c. Analytical ability
d. Personality

* _________ is a type of organizational stress caused by sudden over-joy.
a. Eustress
b. Euphoria
c. Hyper work stress
d. Hypo stress

* __________is the extent to which an individual believes they control the events which affect them.
a. Machiavellianism
b. Locus of control
c. Integration
d. Risk seeking propensity

* _________is/are developed through external adaptation and internal integration.
a. Organizational culture
b. Organizational politics
c. Organizational philosophy
d. Organizational ceremonies

* From among the following, which survey feedback tool is used in organizational development?
a. High interaction among team members
b. Assisting members to understand the processes/events with which they deal
c. The use of questionnaires to identify the discrepancies in the members' perception
d. Training employees through unstructured group interactions

* Which structure creates dual lines of authority and combines functional and product departmentalization?
a. Entrepreneurial
b. Matrix organization
c. Strategic Business Unit
d. Divisional organization

* In which leadership style do followers make attributions of heroic leadership abilities when they observe certain behavior?
a. Charismatic
b. Transformational
c. Visionary
d. Autocratic

* Which of the following is a behavioral theory of leadership?
a. Ohio State Studies
b. University of Michigan studies
c. Fiedler model
d. Scandinavian studies

* What is referent power?
a. Power dependent on personal traits such as charisma and good character
b. Power dependent on personal traits such as superior skills and abilities
c. Power dependent on personal traits such as authority and seniority
d. Power dependent on personal traits such as high level of identification with, admiration of, or respect for the power-holder

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 oDesk Organizational Behavior Test Answers 2015.

oDesk Management Skill Test Answers 2015

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Please feel free to ask any questions, regarding on this post in comments section.

* Which motivation strategy is characterized by a high emphasis on performance and a low emphasis on satisfaction?
a. Indulging
b. Imposing
c. Integrating
d. Ignoring
Answer:A

* Which of the following is neither a cash in-flow nor cash out-flow?
a. Rents received
b. Payments from debtors
c. Payments to creditors
d. Mortgage repayments
e. Depreciation
Answer:E

* Which of the following best completes the sentence: "Repetitive decisions are known as ________ ."
a. operational decisions
b. programmed decisions
c. routine decisions
d. standard decisions
Answer:C

* Mary Parker Follett defined management as: "the art of getting things done through __________."
a. money
b. influence
c. coercion
d. people
Answer:D

* A Mission Statement: ____________.
a. provides information as to what the organization is trying to achieve.
b. outlines a task to be undertaken by a team.
c. summarizes the outcome of a project.
d. sets out the high-level structure of the organization.
Answer:C

* Self-regulation, one of the characteristics of an effective leader, is defined as the ability to ______ .
a. understand one's own reactions and the effect of one's behavior on other team members.
b. control oneself and to reflect in complex situations.
c. maintain an ongoing commitment to a goal in often turbulent and chaotic times.
d. understand the complexities of other people's situations.
e. maintain teamwork in situations where uncertainty can isolate and drive people apart.
Answer:C

* In which context are the terms Unfreezing and Refreezing used?
a. Management of Change
b. Management of Order
c. Dimensions of Order
d. Resistance to Change
e. Dimensions of Control
Answer:A

* A manager is seeking to introduce new working conditions. Which of the following is the best way to gain employees' cooperation?
a. Send an email to the entire staff informing them of the new conditions.
b. Post the new instructions on a notice board.
c. Organize a briefing for the entire staff.
d. Discuss the proposals with staff representatives.
Answer:C

* Which of the following characterise a 'differentiation'-based business model? 
1.High sales volume
2.High profit margin
3.Well-regarded brand
4.High-quality manufacture

a. 1,2 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
e. All of the above
Answer:E

* In which of the following circumstances is the directive method of introducing planned change inappropriate?
a. When the manager enjoys sufficient position power (e.g.: he/she has significant control over rewards and punishments).
b. When the employees are achievement-motivated and willing to accept the change.
c. If organization communication pattern is 'star-type', which favors the change agent as a leader over his subordinates.
d. When the driving forces far outweigh the restraining forces.
Answer:B

* If the financial year starts in January, the Fixed Budget will be prepared ___________.
a. a month or two earlier
b. in January
c. at the end of that year
d. as and when the Financial Manager decides
Answer:A

* Which of the following statements is false?
a. Decision-making should be based on evidence.
b. Decision-making should take into account a range of factors.
c. Decision-making should involve key stakeholders.
d. Decision-making should be rapid.
Answer:B

* Which of the following types of costs is not typically 'variable':
a. Cost of raw materials
b. Cost of marketing
c. Cost of lighting
d. Cost of transportation
Answer:B

* What is the main advantage of employing staff on a temporary basis?
a. Greater flexibility in responding to customer requirements
b. Improved productivity
c. Enhanced customer satisfaction
d. Lower staff turnover
Answer:

* Which of the following reveals whether or not a company is earning a profit?��
a. Income statement
b. Statement of cash reconciliation
c. Balance statement
d. Statement of cash flows
e. Statement of owners' equity
Answer:C

* Which of the following can be used as a term for Supervisor?
a. Area manager
b. Specialty manager
c. Front-line manager
d. Technical manager
Answer:C

* Which of the following represents the implementation of a 'Just-in-Time' production approach?
a. The installation of a new computer system.
b. Receiving materials as and when they are required for production.
c. Having a large supply of materials ready to be processed.
d. Implementing process controls to improve quality.
e. Introducing monitoring tools to assess efficiency
Answer:B

* There are some important measures which a company can use to determine the effects of training. Which of the following is not one of them?
a. Production
b. Changes in specific results, such as turnover
c. Job applications
d. Profit of the company
e. Overall growth
Answer:C

* The 'Principle of Order' applies to ______________.
a. one head and one plan
b. right person in right job
c. issuing instructions
d. justice and kindness
Answer:B

* Which of the following is not a financial statement?
a. Statement of Financial Loss
b. Income Statement
c. Balance Sheet
d. Statement of Retained Earnings
e. Statement of Cash Flow
Answer:B

* Which one of the following is another term for the Scalar Principle?
a. Span of Control
b. Unity of Direction
c. Unity of Command
d. Chain of Command
e. Personal ability
Answer:D

* If a subordinate is having difficulty carrying out a delegated task, what should a manager do?
a. Take over the task for the employee so he or she will not become demoralized.
b. Be available as a role model and resource in identifying alternative solutions.
c. Give the employee a written warning.
d. Give the employee a second delegated task so he or she has another opportunity to prove his worth.
Answer:B

* Which of the following constitutes a fixed asset in a business?
a. Creditors
b. Debtors
c. Stock
d. Fixtures and fittings
Answer:D

* What is a 'stakeholder map'?
a. A means of plotting the location of customers.
b. A means of identifying all those affected by the organization.
c. A means of targeting your intended market.
d. A means of predicting sales growth.
Answer:B

* Which one of the following best completes the sentence: "Division of work promotes __________."
a. Effective management
b. Efficiency
c. Experience
d. Equality
Answer:D

* Which of the listed management functions involves creating an environment where everyone works together to achieve the common goals of the organization?
a. Planning
b. Controlling
c. Leading
d. Recruiting
e. Organizing
Answer:C

* Which one of the following best completes the sentence: The principle of 'Unity of Command' is concerned with __________.
a. activities
b. persons
c. remuneration
d. respect of authority
Answer:C

* If a manager is attempting to establish motivational goals for his employees, which of the following should he do?
a. Involve subordinates in the goal-setting process
b. Set goals that are stated in very general terms
c. Set conflicting goals so employees can accomplish one goal or another as they choose
d. Set goals that are easy to achieve
Answer:C

* What does the term 'Unity of Control' stand for under Principles of Organizing?
a. That there should be a limit to the number of persons that can be supervised effectively by one boss.
b. That each subordinate should have only one superior whose orders he has to obey.
c. That the line of authority from the chief executive at the top to the first line supervisor at the bottom must be clearly defined.
d. That the activities of the enterprise should be divided according to functions and assigned to persons according to their specialization.
Answer:A

* In the 'situational' leadership style, the manager is concerned with ___________.
a. task accomplishment
b. human relations and teamwork
c. giving free rein to his/her staff
d. prompt, orderly performance
e. growth for staff and himself/herself
Answer:E

* Long-term budgets are useful for those industries where the gestation period is long. Which of the following is not relevant to the above statement?
a. Machinery
b. Electricity
c. Textile
d. Engineering
Answer:A

* In which order would the following strategic planning activities take place?
1.Evaluating performance
2.Devising strategy
3.Documenting plans
4.Executing plans

a. 2, 4, 3, 1
b. 4, 3, 1, 2
c. 3, 2, 1, 4
d. 4, 1, 3, 2
e. 2, 3, 4, 1
Answer:

* Why do businesses use cash-flow forecasts as part of the internal planning process?
a. To estimate the value of their assets at the year end.
b. To assess potential profit or loss.
c. To allocate the marketing budget.
d. To predict future borrowing requirements.
Answer:D

* Which of the following is an external source of recruitment?
a. Promotion from within
b. Transfer of employees
c. Unsolicited applicants
d. Staff returning from maternity leave
Answer:D

* An employee's desire and commitment to perform that is manifested in job related effort defines his/her _____________ .
a. aptitude
b. motivation
c. performance
d. ability
Answer:C

* A tool for evaluating organizational performance across the full range of a business is known as a 'balanced __________'.
a. scorecard.
b. ledger.
c. matrix.
d. healthcheck.
Answer:A

* The degree to which a company owns its upstream suppliers and its downstream buyers is known as _____________.
a. monopolization
b. vertical integration
c. specialization
d. diversification
Answer:

* Which term refers to a document that sets out an organization's 'rules' regarding a particular issue?
a. Process
b. Policy
c. Procedure
d. Practice
e. Paradigm
Answer:

* Which of the following is correctly ordered as a Management Process?
a. Staffing, Planning, Organizing, Directing, Co-ordinating, Controlling
b. Planning, Staffing, Organizing, Directing, Co-ordinating, Controlling
c. Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Co-ordinating, Controlling
d. Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Controlling, Co-ordinating
Answer:C

* Which of the following reveals whether or not a company is earning a profit?
a. Income statement
b. Statement of cash reconciliation
c. Balance statement
d. Statement of cash flows
e. Statement of owners' equity
Answer:C

* Which of the following is not a feature of a good organizational structure?
a. Clear line of authority
b. Adequate delegation of authority
c. Proper span of control
d. More managerial levels
e. Simple and flexible structure
Answer:D

* Operations can be classified according to their volume and variety of production, as well as the degree of variation and visibility. Which of the following operations would be classified as high-volume, low-variety?
a. A cashier's
b. A carpenter's
c. A family doctor's
d. A front-office bank's
Answer:C

* Which of the following are not legitimate risk management options?
1.Terminate
2.Turn
3.Tolerate
4.Treat
5.Test
6.Transfer.

a. 1 and 4
b. 2 and 3
c. 5 and 6
d. 2 and 5
e. 1 and 6
f. 3 and 4
Answer:c

* Which of the following would help a company manufacture products to the standard required by the customer?
a. Performance appraisal
b. Stock control
c. Quality control
d. Strategic planning approach
Answer:c

* In decentralization, subordinates __________ .
a. enjoy significant powers
b. are permitted limited powers
c. Do not get any powers
d. work unsupervised
e. are no longer managed
Answer:

* Which of the following is not included in calculating working capital?
a. Stock of work in progress
b. Plant
c. Debtors
d. Creditors
Answer:A

* Which term refers to an internal framework for ensuring that an organization behaves responsibly?
a. Performance monitoring
b. Governance
c. Strategy
d. Watchdog
e. Stakeholder
Answer: 
 
* Which two factors are combined to evaluate the size of risks facing an organization?
a. Probability and Scale.
b. Impact and Importance
c. Probability and Impact
d. Scale and Importance.
Answer:C


* Which of the following is generally an inappropriate reason for delegation?
a. It relieves the manager of his/her heavy workload.
b. It frees the manager to address more complex, higher-level needs.
c. Someone else is better qualified to do the task that needs to be done.
d. It helps create a formal organizational structure.
Answer:B

* A member of the Board of Directors of a company who is not an employee of the company is called a ________.
a. consultant
b. inside director
c. non-executive director
d. corporate officer
Answer:B

* Which of the following statements is not likely to characterize a planning approach to strategy development?
a. Strategies are the outcome of rational, sequential, and methodical practices
b. Definite and precise objectives are set
c. Strategies are developed by negotiation and bargaining between interest groups
d. Defined procedures for the implementation and achievement of strategic objectives are developed
e. None of the above
Answer:E


* A tool to plot the duration of activities in a project and its dependencies is named after:
a. Robert George
b. Toby Williams
c. Henry Gantt
d. Samuel Edwards
Answer:A

* Which of the following is not a key function of leadership?
a. Enthusing and inspiring staff.
b. Setting strategic direction.
c. Being accountable for performance.
d. Closely monitoring the execution of tasks.
Answer:D

* If a company's productivity is rising, it means ___________ .
a. costs are rising at a faster rate than output.
b. output is rising at a faster rate than costs.
c. output and costs are increasing at the same rate.
d. output and costs are decreasing at the same rate.
Answer:D

* Which of the following activities should not be outsourced?
a. Core business
b. Project management
c. Human Resources
d. Marketing
e. Sales
Answer:C

* Which ratio shows an organization's effectiveness in minimizing production costs?
a. Gross profit ratio
b. Current ratio
c. Efficiency ratio
d. Selling ratio
Answer:A

* Which item appears in both the balance sheet and the profit and loss account?
a. Suppliers
b. Heating
c. Sales
d. Closing stock
Answer:D 

oDesk Online Article Writing and Blogging Test (U.S) Answers 2015

For Article Writing and Spinning job, you should pass this test for getting Jobs more fast.

Question1:
Is it a good idea to have two blogs with the same content to try and increase traffic?
b.     Yes, two blogs, even with the same content, will most likely double your traffic on the web

Question2:
If you're writing an article about applying for admission to graduate courses in universities, your target audience is likely to be _________.
c.     a range of readers who are thinking of applying for admission to a graduate school

Question3:
What are "Google alerts"?
d.     A system where Google e-mails you the results of your pre-arranged search terms on a regular basis to stir your thoughts about writing blog content   

Question4:
What is "fair use" in terms of using someone else's copyright online?
a.     A system where copyright is exchanged between the original owner and the blogger who co-opts it   

Question5:
What is "autocasting"?
d.     An automated form of podcasting that allows bloggers (and blog readers) to create audio versions of text-only blogs using RSS feeds  

Question6:
Which is the correct order for finding your target audience and selling goods or services to it?
c.     Have a business plan, identify your audience type and their level of expertise, design a strategy for drawing them to your site with greater interest in your product, make sales, identify their interest in your product     

Question7:
What are "blooks"?
d.     All of the above 

Question8:
When writing an article about safety and light bulbs, which of the following is likely to be your target audience?
b.     Ordinary people involved in home improvement 

Question9:
If you're writing an article about the automotive industry, which of the following would be the best way of promoting your article?
a.     Adding internal links within your blog that cross-reference the article        ------Question10:
 
Question 10:
What is the term used for "the number of times the keyword is used divided by the total word count on the page"?
d.     Density of syllables 

Question11:
What are "stop words"?
c.     Words that are banned on the blogosphere by the blog police  

Question12:
What is the "useful but incomplete" approach in terms of promoting your product in an online article or so-called e-zine?
c.     Making the article useful but leaving it incomplete so the market is enticed but has to follow your link to learn more 
 
Question13:
In sourcing information, you may use materials not subject to copyright such as names, common symbols, lists of ingredients, short phrases, slogans, slang, titles etc.
b.     False

Question14:
What is an "open thread"
b.     A thread that has closed links

Question15:
What are "FAQs"?
e.     All of the above

Question16:
Which of the following is the term used for the collective blogging intelligentsia, namely the most influential bloggers online by page rank owing to their high traffic count?
b.     Hoi polloi

Question17:
How long does an author's copyright – whether in print or online - last?
d.     For 40 years after he/she dies

Question18:
What is "blogosphere"?
d.     Blog companies that group together and buy smaller blogs

Question19:
What is 'placing of keywords in the important parts of a webpage so that search engines may give them priority' called?
a.     Keyword prominence

Question20:
What will happen if you type the words "sport-basketball" in the Google search box
c.     Google will find the web pages about "sport" that do not contain the word "basketball"

Question21:
What is "podcasting"?
d.     Mass e-mailing for marketing purposes to promote several blogs at the same time 

Question22:
Search engines will return different results depending on the word order of the search terms.
a.     True

Question23:
What is an "affiliate business program"?
b.     Signing up to be a business partner with another online company to promote each other's interests and thereby reaching a larger market 

Question24:
it's a good idea to create identical content on multiple blogs as this can increase web traffic and get higher listings in search engines.
a.     True  

Question25:
Which of the following is most likely to guarantee the content on your blog is professional, subject-appropriate and grammatically correct?
c.     Reading it through before posting 

Question26:
There's little need to copy text before trying to publish it to the web because you rarely lose the text at the time of publication.
a.     True 

Question27:
If you own a copyright on your own works, you can license your work for reproduction and publication around the world according to place and length of time.
b.     False

Question28:
What distinguishes a blog from a website?
d.     Contact details

Question29:
What is "misinformation"?
c.     Mr. Information  

Question30:
If your website sells golf equipment, your promotional articles should be written about _________ .
d.     the best clubs to use at certain times

Question31:
What is the difference between a "patent" and a "trademark"?
b.     Patents and trademarks are the same; it is copyright that is different  

Question32:
Which of the following features will increase the likelihood of a reader staying longer on your blog?
b.     Using external links to generate the new page as a pop-up window rather than going directly to the new site 

Question33:
What is an "anonoblog"?
b.     Using external links to generate the new page as a pop-up window rather than going directly to the new site  

Question34:
What is the reference list to other works placed at the end of an article called?
c.     Original material

Question35:
What does "'ping' your blog" mean?
d.     An alert that notifies the original poster of a post when someone else writes an entry concerning the original post

Question36:
What is a "tag"?
b.     A language element, such as a word, often used in blogs to identify the type or types of content that makes up a particular post    

Question37:
Which of the following are good ways of protecting your online content?
a.Searching for the plagiarists of your content  

Question38:
Fooling the search engines with link farms, keyword stuffing, cloaking or alt text spamming is not a good idea because _____________________ .
d.     All of the above

Question39:
What is a "plagiarism warning banner?"
b.     A banner you place on your site or blog to deter potential plagiarists 

Question40:
Why is it damaging to have disfunctioning or non-functioning(dead)links on your website?
a.     You cannot prevent people from reaching the destination without doing so

You can find out more test answers:-
 oDesk Online Article Writing And Blogging Test (U.S.) Answers 2015.

oDesk Wordpress Test Answers 2015

Adobe Photoshop CS4 Test should be taken before applying on the Graphics Design job.

* What is the use of the Monochromatic option in the Add Noise dialog box as shown in the picture?

a. It reduces noise by changing dissimilar pixels.

b. It applies the filter to only the tonal elements in the image without changing the colors.

c. It reduces noise in an image by blending the brightness of the pixels within a selection.

* While using a smudge tool, if the "Sample All Layers" option is selected, how will the smudge tool behave?

a. It will sample all the visible layers and smudge respectively each layer

b. It will sample all the visible layers and smudge only the active layer

c. It will sample only the active layer and smudge all the visible layers

d. It will sample only the active layer and smudge only the active layer

 

* The Divide Slice dialog box can not be used to divide:

a. User slice

b. Auto slice

c. Layer-based slice

 

* Which of the following layers affects all the layers below it?

a. The Adjustment layer

b. The Fill layer

c. Both a and b

* Which slice type will you choose to enter HTML text as shown in the picture?

a. A

b. B

c. Both a and b

 

* Which type of layers contains information required for alignment?

a. Adjustment layers

b. Vector layers

c. Smart objects

d. None of the above

 

* Which smart blur mode has been used as shown in the preview in the given image?

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. No mode is used.

Which of the following properties of a 3D layer can not be animated?

a. 3D object or camera position

b. 3D render settings

c. 3D cross section

d. None of the above

 

* When does Layer → Arrange → Reverse option appear active?

a. When you have at least one layer selected.

b. When you have at least two layers selected.

c. It is always active by default.

d. When you flatten an image.

 

Which Auto-Align layers option aligns layers and matches overlapping content without changing the shape of the objects in the image as shown in the picture?

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

Which type of the blending mode is supported by layers that use the Fill With Neutral Color option?

a. Normal

b. Dissolve

c. Luminosity

d. None of the above

Which among the labeled buttons in the given diagram will you use to have a changed position attribute apply to all other frames in the active layer in the frame animation mode?

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

How would you apply a layer style to a background layer?

a. You cannot apply layer styles to a background layer.

b. First convert the background layer into a regular layer.

c. First export the background layer.

Which command cannot be applied to composite channels?

a. Apply Image command

b. Calculations command

c. Both a and b

Which format can be used to save your camera raw file in Photoshop?

a. AI

b. FLA

c. MPEG

d. JPEG

You can move Alpha or Spot channels above the default color channels only when the image is in the __________ mode?

a. RGB

b. Duotone

c. LAB

d. Multichannel

Which of the following types of swatches can be shared between applications? (choosing colors)

a. HSB

b. Duotone

c. WebRGB swatches from Photoshop

d. Solid swatches

Which command is used to delete footage in one or more layers in the timeline mode?

a. Extract Work Area

b. Lift Work Area

c. Split Layer

In the given picture, which Reconstruction mode in the Liquify filter scales back distortions uniformly without any kind of smoothing?

a. A

b. B

c. C

Which condition should be satisfied first to transform video layers?

a. Rasterize video layers

b. Move video layers

c. Convert video layers to Smart Objects

Which interpolation method will you use to animate a visiblity layer when you want the layer to appear or disappear suddenly across the timeline?

a. Linear Interpolation

b. Hold Interpolation

c. Quick Interpolation

Which option in the given picture displays Normals as default render presets?

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

Which option of Create UV Overlay shows model areas using a solid rendering mode?

a. Wireframe

b. Shaded

c. Normal Map

In the given picture, the Conté Crayon filter(sketch filter) uses the foreground color for:

 

a. Light areas

b. Dark areas

c. Transparency

In the File Info dialog box, which information is not displayed in a browser but is added to the HTML file as a comment and to the image file as metadata?

a. Title information

b. Copyright information

c. Both a and b

Which mode in the animation panel shows the frame duration and animation properties for document layers?

a. The Frame mode

b. The Timeline mode

c. Both a and b

In which frame disposal method does a disposal icon not appear on the frame?

a. When you choose the Do Not Dispose method.

b. When you choose the Dispose method.

c. When you choose the Automatic method. 

If there is no background, Deep knocks out to which of the following options as shown in the picture?

 

a. Deep knockout appears dim.

b. Deep knocks out to Shallow option.

c. Deep knocks out to transparency. 

In which option is the selection placed in a channel in your active image by default as shown in the picture?

a. A

b. B

c. C 

Which command allows you to use free memory used by the History Panel, or the Clipboard?

a. Fade

b. Clear

c. Purge 

For previewing which of the following image modes is the 32-Bit Preview option not available?

a. 32 Bit RGB

b. 32 Bit Grayscale

c. 16 Bit RGB

Which action can not be undone?

a. File → Revert

b. Edit → Purge → Histories

c. Both a and b 

Which Texture filter is used on picture A to produce the result of picture B, as shown in the picture?

 

a. Craquelure

b. Patchwork

c. Texturizer

d. Grain 

Which option in the info panel box displays values in the current color mode of the image as shown in the picture?

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

When is an image flattened?

a. When you delete an Alpha channel

b. When you delete a Spot channel

c. When you delete a Quick Mask

d. None of the above 

In the Save for Web dialog box, when multiple slices using different color tables are selected for saving as gif images, the color table shows up for:

a. the first slice in the selection

b. the last slice in the selection

c. all the slices in the selection

d. the color table does not show up at all

Which Artistic filter is used on picture A to produce picture B as shown in the picture?

 

a. Paint Daubs

b. Palette Knife

c. Plastic Wrap

d. Poster Edges

Which type of slices has gray symbols as shown in the picture?

a. User slices

b. Layer-based slices

c. Auto slices 

Which channel would you choose for grayscale images in the Color Halftone Filter dialog box as shown in the picture?

 

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D 

Which color mode does not support layers?

a. RGB

b. CMYK

c. The Multichannel mode

The Photoshop Extended Measurement Feature can be used for measuring area selected by the:

a. Rectangular Marquee Tool.

b. Magic Wand Tool

c. Crop Tool

d. Spot Healing Brush Tool

Which file format does Vanishing Point support to preserve the perspective plane information?

a. PSD

b. TIFF

c. JPEG

d. All of the above

When does white color appear in the histogram and RGB levels in Camera Raw as shown in the picture?

a. When three channels among RGB overlap.

b. When two channels among RGB overlap.

c. When a style is applied to an image.

While using the Action Pane in the button mode, how would you exclude all the commands in an action except the selected one?

a. By using Alt+Click (Windows) or Option+Click (Mac) to clear the check box on the left of the command.

b. By clicking to clear the check box on the left of the Action or the Set Name.

c. You cannot exclude commands in the button mode.

Which option would you choose to display the HDR color picker?

a. In the toolbox, click the foreground or background color selection box.

b. In the Color panel, click the set foreground color or set background color selection box.

c. Both a and b.

In Paint Mask mode, which area does blue color highlight in the given image?

a. It shows areas good for painting.

b. It shows areas where paint will be undersampled.

c. It shows areas where paint will be oversampled.

d. It shows that the area has a missing channel information. 

What would you use to insert non-recordable commands into an action?

a. Insert Stop

b. Insert Path

c. Insert Menu Item Command

Which 3D tool is used to rotate the camera around the z-axis?

a. The 3D Rotate tool

b. The 3D Roll tool

c. The 3D Roll View tool

What will happen if you enter a negative value in the roundness option of a postcrop vignette in the camera raw dialog box as shown in the picture?

a. A negative value will make the effect more circular.

b. A negative value will make the effect more oval.

c. A negative value will make the effect more rectangular.

d. You can not enter a negative value.

To paint or clone on video frames contained by a smart object, you can:

a. directly paint or clone on the video frames.

b. insert a new layer above the video frames and paint or clone on the new layer.

c. Both a and b.

What values would you enter in the focal plane box to move the plane in the 3D render settings box as shown in the picture?

a. Enter negative values to move the plane forward.

b. Enter negative values to move the plane backward.

c. You can not enter negative values in this box.

As shown in the image, which option would you select to increase or decrease the tiling for texture?

a. A

b. B

c. Both a and b

To change the settings for a command within an action or pauses in an action so that you can specify values in a dialog box, You will use:

a. Insert stop

b. Modal control

c. Stop recording

Which Quick Mask option sets masked areas to white (transparent) and selected areas to black (opaque) as shown in the picture?

a. A

b. B

c. Both a and b

For the type and shape layer, which lock options are selected by default and cannot be deselected as shown in the picture?

 
 

a. A and B

b. B and C

c. A, B and C

d. C only

Which option would you choose to crop to the original size of the page while placing a PDF file in photoshop as shown in the picture?

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. D

For which type of the following options is Auto Blend Layers available?

a. Video layers

b. 3D layers

c. RGB Images

d. Background layers

When does the Cached Data Warning icon appear in the Histogram panel?

a. When a histogram is read from the current state of the document instead of a cache.

b. When a histogram is read from a cache instead of the current state of the document.

c. Both a and b.

Which type of blending modes is not available for the Apply Image and Calculations commands?

a. Add

b. Subtract

c. Both a and b are available

d. Neither a nor b is available

When does the 3D Axis appear?

a. When you have a 3D layer

b. When the 3D tool is selected.

c. Both a and b.

What can you not copy using duplicate command on an image?

a. Layers

b. Layer masks

c. Channels

d. None of the above

Which save options are not available in the Batch or Create Droplet commands?

a. JPEG compression

b. TIFF

c. Both a and b

While using the Action Panel in the button mode, how would you exclude all the commands in an action except the selected one?

a. By using Alt+Click (Windows) or Option+Click (Mac) to clear the check box on the left of the command.

b. By clicking to clear the check box on the left of the Action or the Set Name.

c. You cannot exclude commands in the button mode.

In All Channels View, the individual histograms do not include:

a. Alpha Channels

b. Spot Channels

c. Masks

d. All of the above

Which command would you use to re-link the video layer to the source file?

a. Interpret Footage

b. Show Altered Video

c. Replace Footage

Which option would you choose to open the HDR color picker dialog box while editing a 32- bpc image?

a. In the toolbox, click the foreground or background color selection box.

b. In the Color panel, click the set foreground color or set background color selection box.

c. Both a and b.

Merging of channels is possible only:

a. when images are in the grayscale mode.

b. when images are flattened.

c. when more than one image open for the merge channel option to be available.

d. All of the above.

Which type of channels is created automatically when you open a new image?

a. Alpha channels

b. Spot color channels

c. Color information channels

Which of the following photoshop tools can be used to edit an HDR/32-bpc image?

a. Gradient

b. Magic Wand

c. Pen Tool

d. Blur Tool

Which command is used to delete footage in one or more layers and leaving the gap of same duration in the timeline mode?

a. Extract Work Area

b. Lift Work Area

c. Split Layer

Which color mode supports the Match Color command?

a. Bitmap

b. CMYK

c. LAB

d. RGB

The scale styles option is available only when:

a. the Resample Image is selected

b. Constrain Proportions is selected

c. the Resample Image as well as Constrain Proportions is selected

Which option would you choose to set the timeline duration you want to preview in the Animation panel?

a. Drag either end of the work area bar.

b. Drag the work area bar over the section you want to preview.

c. Move the current-time indicator to the time or frame you want. From the Animation panel menu, choose either Set Start of Work Area or Set End of Work Area.

d. All of the above

Which of the following will list the saved selections when dialog box appears same as shown in the image given above?

a. A

b. B

c. C

Which command does not convert the pixel edits to a video layer while managing colors in video layers?

a. The Assign Profile

b. The Convert To Profile

c. The Color Settings Profile

If one step in an action converts an image with a source mode of RGB to a target mode of CMYK, applying this action to an image in Grayscale mode will result in:

a. the conversion of the source Grayscale image to CMYK

b. the conversion of the source Grayscale image to RGB

c. the conversion of the source Grayscale image to RGB first and then to CMYK

d. an error

Which of the following options will let you use the white balance settings as provided by the camera in the camera raw dialog box as shown in the picture?

a. A

b. B

c. C

Which of the following information is not retained when a 3D file is opened in photoshop?

a. Textures

b. Rendering

c. Lighting

d. All of the above are retained

Which Interpolation(Tweening) method will you use to animate a visibility of a layer when you want the layer to appear or disappear suddenly across the timeline?

a. Linear Interpolation

b. Hold Interpolation

c. Quick Interpolation

You can find out more Test Answers:-
oDesk Wordpress Test Answers 2015.